United News of Bangladesh

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has once again extended the deadline for filing income tax returns for individual taxpayers for 2025–2026 tax year until 31 March, 2026. In an order issued under Section 334 of the Income Tax Act, 2023, the revenue authority said the decision was taken in the public interest. Under the earlier schedule, the deadline for submitting returns was set for 28 February. Officials said the extension is expected to facilitate compliance and ease pressure on taxpayers who may require additional time to finalise their documentation. The NBR urged taxpayers to take advantage of the extended timeline and ensure timely submission of returns within the new deadline to avoid any penalties under the law.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has suspended its online VAT services due to technical maintenance work. All services of the eVAT system will remain closed from 1:30pm to 8:00pm on February 25 to facilitate the migration of the Next Generation Firewall, said an official notice on Wednesday. The move is part of efforts to upgrade the security infrastructure of the VAT system used for revenue collection. During the scheduled period, users will not be able to access any operational services under the VAT system. The revenue authority said the services will resume as usual after 8:00pm on the same day once the migration work is completed. NBR forms committee to prepare budget for 2026-27 fiscal The NBR has requested VAT-registered businesses and stakeholders to complete their necessary online activities outside the scheduled downtime to avoid inconvenience. The eVAT system introduced by the National Board of Revenue (NBR) marks a significant step in Bangladesh’s ongoing efforts to modernise tax administration and enhance transparency. Designed to automate Value Added Tax processes, the electronic VAT platform aims to simplify compliance, reduce human intervention and curb revenue leakage. The system enables businesses to complete VAT registration, return submission, payment and record-keeping online.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has formed a budget committee by assigning additional responsibilities to four senior officials to support the preparation and coordination of the national budget for the 2026–27 fiscal year. According to an official order issued on February 23 by the NBR Board Administration Wing, the committee has been constituted to ensure smooth coordination, planning and management of budget-related activities. NBR records 13% growth in tax collection y-on-y in first 7 months of fiscal The order was signed by Mohammad Mofizur Rahman, Second Secretary (Board Administration-1), and came into immediate effect following approval from the competent authority. As per the order, SM Shamsuzzaman, First Secretary (Customs: Automation), has been designated as the Chief Budget Coordinator. Three other officials have been appointed as Budget Coordinators to assist in the process. They are Tanvir Ahmed, Second Secretary (Customs: Classification and Valuation Ruling); Syed Mehedi Haque, Second Secretary (Tax Appeal and Legal); and Tauhidur Rahman, Second Secretary (Tax Exemption). All four officials are currently serving at the NBR headquarters in Dhaka and will perform these responsibilities in addition to their existing duties. NBR invites applications for C&F agent licences The NBR said the committee has been formed to strengthen internal coordination and facilitate effective preparation, monitoring and implementation of budget-related activities. The committee will support revenue planning, coordination among relevant departments and other preparatory work linked to the formulation of the national budget. The NBR is the country’s apex tax authority responsible for mobilising domestic revenue, which constitutes the largest share of government income and plays a critical role in national budget formulation. This will be the first budget of the BNP led government after assuming office through winning a landslide victory on February 12 election.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) recorded a 12.90 percent growth in overall tax collection during the first seven months of the current fiscal year (FY2025–26), driven by strong performances in VAT and income tax, according to provisional data. The National Board of Revenue collected Tk 2,23,638 crore in revenue during the July–January period of FY26, up from Tk 1,98,090.13 crore collected during the same period in the previous fiscal year. The target was Tk 2,83,750 crore for the first seven months of the running fiscal. NBR invites applications for C&F agent licences Among the major sources, Value Added Tax (VAT) posted the highest growth rate. VAT collection rose by 16.45 percent to Tk 85,769.45 crore crore during the period, compared to Tk 73,653.66 crore in the corresponding period of FY25 while the target for the running fiscal was Tk 1,01,274.57 crore. Income tax collection also registered a significant increase, rising 13.29 percent to Tk 75,055.06 crore from Tk 66,252.42 crore a year earlier. The target was Tk 1,03,980.09 crore. Customs revenue, another major component of government income, grew by 7.86 percent to Tk 62,813.52 crore during the July–January period, up from Tk 58,184.85 crore in the same period of the previous fiscal year. The target was Tk 78,496.27 crore. Despite the overall positive trend, customs revenue showed a slight decline in January alone. Customs collection in January 2026 stood at Tk 8,581 crore, marking a 1.31 percent decrease from Tk 8,694.87 crore collected in January 2025. But the target was Tk 13,495.43 crore. NBR extends online VAT returns submission deadline  However, VAT and income tax continued to perform strongly during the month. VAT collection in January rose by 2.57 percent to Tk 15,277 crore, compared to Tk 14,894.31 crore in the same month last year. The target was Tk 20,475.57 crore. Income tax collection recorded even stronger growth in January, increasing by 7.18 percent to Tk 13,175 crore, up from Tk 12,292.63 crore in January 2025. The target was Tk 18,574.57 crore. Overall, total revenue collection in January 2026 stood at Tk 37,033 crore, registering a 3.21 percent increase from Tk 35,881.81 crore collected in January last year while the target for the running fiscal was Tk 52,545.57 crore. However, the total revenue collection during the July–January period remained below the target set for the fiscal year. The revenue target for the period was Tk 2,83,750.94 crore, indicating a shortfall despite the positive growth. Officials said the steady growth in VAT and income tax reflects improved compliance and administrative measures, although customs revenue remains vulnerable to import trends, exchange rate fluctuations and overall economic activity. The government relies heavily on NBR revenue to finance its budget, making sustained growth in tax collection crucial for maintaining fiscal stability and supporting development expenditure.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has invited applications from eligible individuals and entities for Customs Clearing and Forwarding (C&F) agent licences under the newly enacted Customs Clearing and Forwarding Agent Licensing Rules, 2026, aiming to enhance service quality and ensure a more competitive environment for importers and exporters. According to an official press release, interested applicants must submit their applications in the prescribed ‘Form-K’, along with required documents and certificates, to the licensing authority of the respective customs station by 4:00pm on March 31, 2026. NBR extends online VAT returns submission deadline  Applications must be accompanied by the original bank draft or pay order and all supporting documents as specified in the rules. The new licensing process has been introduced under Section 243 of the Customs Act, 2023, replacing the previous Customs Agent Licensing Rules, 2020. The NBR said the updated rules were formulated and notified to create a modern, transparent and efficient regulatory framework for C&F agents and to facilitate smoother customs operations. Officials noted that previously there was no separate and dedicated set of regulations exclusively governing C&F agent licensing. Licences were issued under the broader Customs Agent Licensing Rules, 2020. The newly introduced rules establish a distinct and specialised regulatory structure to streamline licensing procedures and strengthen operational standards in line with evolving customs practices. Under the eligibility criteria, applicants must hold at least a bachelor’s degree or an equivalent qualification from a recognised university. Companies formed under joint ownership between local and foreign partners are also eligible, provided foreign ownership does not exceed 49 percent of total shares. The rules further stipulate that an individual proprietor, partner in a partnership firm or shareholder in a limited company may not obtain more than one licence. Applicants must also specify only one customs station in their application; applications mentioning multiple customs stations will be considered invalid. Two more NBR officials demoted after disciplinary proceedings Applicants are required to submit a range of supporting documents, including attested copies of national identity cards, valid trade licence, income tax return submission proof, academic certificates and recent passport-size photographs. Where applicable, copies of VAT registration certificates, company incorporation documents, partnership deeds and proof of office premises ownership or tenancy must also be provided. In addition, applicants must submit a non-refundable bank draft or pay order of Tk 5,000 in favour of the Director General of the Customs, Excise and VAT Training Academy in Chattogram as the application fee. A declaration on a non-judicial stamp confirming that no previous licence has been issued under the rules in the applicant’s name must also be included. The NBR said candidates whose applications are accepted after preliminary scrutiny by the respective customs stations will be eligible to sit for written and oral examinations conducted by the Customs, Excise and VAT Training Academy in Chattogram. NBR official penalised for violating rules of conduct The list of eligible candidates, examination schedules and results will be published on the academy’s official website. Admit cards for eligible candidates will be sent by post to the address provided in the application form. Following successful completion of the required examination and verification process, licences will be issued by the licensing authority of the relevant customs station in accordance with the rules. The revenue authority cautioned that applications failing to meet the prescribed conditions or submitted after the deadline will be rejected. It also reserved the right to revise or reschedule examination dates and related procedures if necessary. The introduction of the Customs Clearing and Forwarding Agent Licensing Rules, 2026 is expected to improve professional standards in customs brokerage services and facilitate more efficient trade operations, as Bangladesh continues to expand its international trade and logistics sectors.

The government has reduced value Added Tax(VAT) on LPG in a move aimed at stabilising the market and keeping the essential fuel within consumers’ purchasing power. In a press release issued on Monday night, the National Board of Revenue (NBR) said it had issued two separate notifications on February 16, effective until June 30, 2026, revising the existing VAT structure on LPG. Under the previous system, 7.5 per cent VAT was applicable at the local production and trading stages, while a 2 per cent advance tax was imposed at the import stage. Following an application from the Liquified Petroleum Gas(LPG)Operators Association of Bangladesh (LOAB) and a recommendation from the Energy and Mineral Resources Division, the government has withdrawn the 7.5 per cent VAT at the local production and trading levels as well as the 2 per cent advance tax at the import stage. Instead, a uniform 7.5 per cent VAT has been imposed at the import stage. According to the NBR, the restructuring means that while VAT will now be collected at the point of import, no VAT will be applicable on the value addition occurring at the local production and sales stages after import. Officials said the decision was taken in the public interest, considering LPG is an essential commodity for both industrial use and household consumption. The authorities expect the measure to help maintain price stability in the domestic market. LPG price rises by Tk50 per 12kg cylinder in Bangladesh for Feb The NBR said that from the effective date of the notifications, the overall VAT burden on consumers purchasing LPG would decrease by around 20 per cent compared to the previous structure. The revised VAT arrangement will remain in force until June 30, 2026, unless further extended or amended by the government.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has extended the deadline for submitting online VAT returns through its e-VAT system until February 22, 2026, citing public interest and recent technical disruptions. According to an official order, the extension was granted due to a prolonged spell of government holidays surrounding Shab-e-Barat and the national election which limited business operations and affected compliance activities. In addition, taxpayers faced further difficulties on February 15 when the OTP server of the e-Challan system experienced downtime, preventing many from completing their return submissions on time, it added. In view of these circumstances, the revenue authority exercised its legal powers under Section 64 (1A) of the Value Added Tax and Supplementary Duty Act, 2012, to allow additional time for filing returns. The decision aims to ensure that businesses and VAT-registered entities are not penalised for delays caused by factors beyond their control. Many businesses had reported difficulties in accessing the system and generating necessary documents due to the server problem, particularly on the final days leading up to the original deadline. The NBR urged all VAT-registered entities to use the extended period responsibly and submit their January 2026 returns within the new timeframe to avoid penalties and ensure compliance with tax regulations. It also assured taxpayers that necessary measures are being taken to maintain system stability and prevent similar technical setbacks in the future. The e-VAT system has been a key component of the country’s efforts to modernise tax administration and improve transparency in revenue collection.  

The government has reduced the tax deducted at source (TDS) on profits from savings certificates, or Sanchaypatra, to 5 percent from 10 percent for investments of up to Tk 5 lakh, officials said. The National Board of Revenue (NBR) issued a clarification following complaints from investors who alleged that banks and savings offices were incorrectly deducting 10 percent tax on profits from smaller investments. According to the NBR, the reduced tax rate applies when an individual’s total investment across all types of savings certificates does not exceed Tk 5 lakh. For investments above this threshold, a 10 percent TDS will remain applicable, under Section 105 of the Income Tax Act 2023. The Department of National Savings also confirmed that rules for Pensioner Savings Certificates remain unchanged. Investments in this scheme of up to Tk 5 lakh continue to enjoy a zero percent tax rate. The Department of National Savings currently offers four primary schemes: Family Savings Certificate (Paribar Sanchaypatra), Pensioner Savings Certificate, 5-Year Bangladesh Savings Certificate, and Three-Month Profit-Based Savings Certificate. Compensation for small investors in merged banks under review: Central Bank Institutional investment is permitted in all schemes except the Family Savings Certificate. Officials said the clarification is expected to provide ‘significant relief’ to small savers and retirees who depend on monthly or quarterly returns from these government-backed instruments for their livelihoods.

The government has demoted two National Board of Revenue (NBR) officials by two pay grades each after disciplinary proceedings found them guilty of misconduct in separate incidents linked to protests and defiance of official orders. According to separate gazette notifications, Additional Tax Commissioner Chand Sultana Chowdhurani and Joint Tax Commissioner Masuma Khatun were punished under the Government Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 2018. Their suspension orders have also been withdrawn, with the penalties taking immediate effect. Read More: NBR extends income tax return deadline to January 31 Chand Sultana Chowdhurani (Employee ID: 200366), who was serving as Additional Tax Commissioner (current charge) and Officer on Special Duty at the NBR, was accused of instigating officials to abandon official duties and assemble at the Revenue Building following the promulgation of the Revenue Policy and Revenue Management Ordinance, 2025. The allegations stem from WhatsApp messages she posted on June 26, 2025, calling on NBR officials to “come down” and enquiring which tax commissioners were heading towards the NBR in solidarity with a reform platform. Authorities said her actions disrupted revenue collection activities and constituted a clear violation of the Government Servants Conduct Rules, 1979. After departmental proceedings, including a personal hearing and a formal investigation, the charges of misconduct were proven beyond doubt. Read More: NBR enables election aspirants to file online tax returns As punishment, her basic pay has been reduced by two grades — from Tk 58,560 to Tk 53,610 — while her temporary suspension has been revoked. In a separate case, Masuma Khatun (Employee ID: 200297), Joint Tax Commissioner and Officer on Special Duty at the NBR, was found guilty of publicly tearing up a transfer order in front of electronic and print media on June 24, 2025, at the entrance of the Revenue Building. The authorities stated that her actions amounted to insubordination, defiance of a lawful government order and conduct unbecoming of a public servant, in violation of existing conduct and discipline rules. Following an investigation and personal hearing, the allegations of misconduct were also proven against her. Consequently, her basic pay has been reduced by two grades — from Tk 69,850 to Tk 63,960 — and her suspension order has been withdrawn. Both penalties have been imposed as minor punishments under Rule 4(2)(gh) of the Government Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 2018 and are effective immediately.

The National Board of Revenue (NBR) has imposed a penalty of demotion by two pay grades on Additional Tax Commissioner Sehela Siddika for misconduct, following the conclusion of a departmental inquiry, while simultaneously withdrawing her temporary suspension. According to the order, Siddika was found guilty of violating the Government Servants (Conduct) Rules, 1979 and the Government Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 2018, after she allegedly organised and encouraged a work-stoppage programme through messages circulated on WhatsApp in May 2025. While serving, the order said, with the Income Tax Intelligence and Investigation Unit in Dhaka, Siddika allegedly posted messages on May 21, 2025, calling on field-level income tax, customs and VAT officials in Dhaka to gather at the NBR headquarters and remain there from morning to evening the following day. Read More: NBR extends income tax return deadline again She also urged officials outside Dhaka to observe a similar sit-in at their respective offices. Later messages clarified that the programme would run from 9:00am to 5:00pm, with import, export and international passenger services exempted. The authorities held that these actions compelled on-duty officials to abandon their official responsibilities, thereby disrupting national revenue collection activities. The conduct was deemed a clear violation of Rule 30A of the Government Servants (Conduct) Rules, 1979, and constituted misconduct under Rule 32 of the same rules. Read More: A turbulent 18 months at NBR, as various reform initiatives rolled out A departmental case was initiated under Rule 3(b) of the Government Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 2018. After Siddika submitted her written explanation and sought a personal hearing, a hearing was held on December 3, 2025. Subsequently, an inquiry officer was appointed, who concluded that the charges of misconduct had been proven beyond doubt. After reviewing the show-cause reply, inquiry report and all relevant documents, the competent authority decided to impose a penalty under Rule 4(2)(gh) of the 2018 rules. As a result, Siddika’s basic salary has been reduced by two grades—from Tk 71,200 to Tk 65,820. The order also stated that her temporary suspension has been withdrawn and that the decision will take effect immediately.